March 15, 2010

Sternoclavicular Joint Dislocation

Sternoclavicular joint dislocation is a relatively uncommon injury that can be easily missed or misdiagnosed. Bilateral posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation is even rarer still…

The importance in determining the direction of dislocation is emphasised by the dichotomy of management. Hence, a thorough history and examination, especially looking for evidence of compression of retrosternal structures, is paramount. Specialised sternoclavicular X-ray views should be supplemented by CT/MRI if clinical suspicion is high. Posterior dislocations necessitate prompt orthopedic referral.

Case Report

A 30 year old man presented to ED with bilateral “shoulder pain” after a quad bike accident. Having taken a corner at high speed, he feel from the bike landing on his right shoulder and was crushed by the bike landing on his left shoulder.

On presentation, ABCs were intact. No dysphonia, dysphagia or dyspnoea.

Both right and left shoulders were dislocated anteriorly and were relocated at triage.

There was swelling and tenderness over both sternoclavicular joints and the patient was unable to abduct either shoulder actively despite glenohumeral enlocation. Passive movement of the shoulders was limited by pain “over the collarbone”, although the clavicles themselves were only tender near their junction with the sternum. Specifically, the AC joints and humerus were non-tender and arm neurovascular status was normal.

Initial Chest X-ray was performed and reported as normal

SternoClavicular Dislocation 001 s Sternoclavicular Joint Dislocation

However in light of the high clinical suspicion for sternoclavicular joint injury; continued anterior chest pain and failure in shoulder abduction special plain film tomography views of both SC joints was performed:

Sternoclavicualr Dislocation 002 s Sternoclavicular Joint Dislocation

There is widening of the right sternoclavicular joint when compared to the left side.  This appearance is suspicious for subluxation/dislocation. There is probable subtle widening of the left sternoclavicular joint as well. Several well-corticated bone ossicles are noted in the vicinity of the sternoclavicular joints bilaterally.

This was confirmed on CT scan:

Watch the 3D Video of the CT here

Sternoclavicular Dislocation 003 s Sternoclavicular Joint Dislocation

Superior dislocation of bilateral sternoclavicular joints. Associated fracture of the left 1st rib anteriorly noted.

Anatomy of the sternoclavicular joint

  • The sternoclavicular joint is a diarthodial saddle-type joint which provides a pivot for the shoulder girdle on the trunk.
  • The joint capsule is reinforced anterioposteriorly by the anterior and posterior sternoclavicular ligaments.  Superomedially the joint is reinforced by the interclavicular ligament which joins both the upper boarder of both clavicles to the suprasternal notch.
  • The clavicle is also bound to the first costal cartilage and the first rib by the costoclavicular ligament.

SCJ Dislocation Sternoclavicular Joint Dislocation

Original Description

Astley Paston Cooper Sternoclavicular Joint Dislocation

Sir Astley Paston Cooper

Sir Astley Paston Cooper (23 Aug 1768 – 12 Feb 1841)

An English surgeon and pioneer in experimental surgery. He was the first to tie the abdominal aorta in treating an aneurysm (1817), among various other operations he performed successfully at a time before antiseptic procedures. He was devoted to the study and teaching of anatomy, and is said to have dissected daily throughout his career.

In 1820 he excised and infected sebaceous cyst from the scalp of King George IV. He was appointed sergeant surgeon to George IV, William IV and Queen Victoria. He was elected President of the Royal College of Surgeons on two occasions (1827 &1836).

Sir Astley Cooper is credited with the first report of this entity in ‘A treatise on dislocations and on fractures of the joints‘ in 1824. Approximately 120 cases of posterior sternoclavicular joint (SCJ) dislocation have been documented in the medical literature since it was first described, a statistic which underlies its relative rarity.  Despite this statistic, emergency physicians should be familiar with the condition the mechanism of injury and physical findings and the potentially life-threatening injuries.

Clinical Presentation

Incidence

  • Sternoclavicular dislocations account for 3% of all shoulder girdle injuries.
  • 95% of SCJ dislocations are unilateral and anterior dislocations are far more common than posterior dislocations due to the weaker anterior sternoclavicular ligament (ratio 9:1). Bilateral superior dislocations, as in the case above, are rarely described.

Mechanism of Injury

  • Dislocations of the SCJ generally occur following a fall on the outstretched hand or a direct blow to the shoulder. Sporting injuries and motor vehicle accidents account for the most causes of SCJ dysfunction. However, they can also occur without any history of injury.
  • Patients commonly present with pain and swelling in the proximal sternum and sternoclavicular region. The pain will be exacerbated by lateral shoulder compression, arm movements, deep breathing or coughing.
  • Patients often laterally flex their neck towards the affected side to relieving pressure on the SCJ. Asymmetry is best appreciated when viewed from above the patient’s head.
  • Additional symptoms include dysphonia, dysphagia or dyspnoea.

Diagnostic Imaging

  • Plain X-ray: standard views may not provide a definitive diagnosis. Alternate views such as ’serendipity view’ (40-degree cephalic tilt) may provide more information.
  • CTA or MRA to determine direction of dislocation and potential for vascular compromise. A contrast study is required for definitive evaluation of surrounding structures.

Complications

Many complications have been reported in the literature related to retrosternal (posterior) dislocation of the medial end of the clavicle including:

Management

Simple sprain of the SCJ

  • Patients will complain of mild to moderate pain and there will be no joint instability on clinical examination.
  • Conservative treatment with ice, analgesia, shoulder sling for immobility will lead to complete recovery in 1 week.
  • Subluxation of the SCJ will require the application of a clavicular splint or sling for 3 to 6 weeks

Anterior SCJ Dislocations

  • Anterior sternoclavicular dislocations are usually managed nonoperatively.
  • The clavicle often stabilises in its subluxed position, with asymmetrical ventral protrusion of the affected side. The arm should be rested in a sling which will assist in the reduction of pain. Patients generally experience a good pain-free functional outcome at 2-3 weeks. Very rare complications include chronic pain, periarticular calcifications with ankylosis and progressive deformity.
  • Closed reduction may be indicated in rare circumstances where the patient is engaged in strenuous upper limb activities causing a painful SCJ. It is however, often unsuccessful. The application of direct pressure over the medial end of the clavicle may also reduce the joint.

Posterior SCJ Dislocations

  • Posterior sternoclavicular dislocations should always be reduced in theatre because of the associated risk to intrathoracic and superior mediastinal structures.

Example of a Unilateral Posterior Sternoclavicular Dislocation

Unilateral Posterior Sternoclavicular Dislocation

Unilateral Posterior Sternoclavicular Dislocation

Unilateral Posterior Sternoclavicular Dislocation

Unilateral Posterior Sternoclavicular Dislocation CT


Methods of reduction

The initial treatment of choice is a closed reduction. Various methods have been described:

  • Classical:  Patient positioned supine with a towel/sandbag between scapulae. Sedation is administered and traction is applied to the abducted arm with simultaneous extension. This has an 80% success rate.
  • Buckerfield and Castle: While shoulders are pushed posteriorly by an assistant, the ipsilateral arm is adducted against the torso and caudal traction is applied.
  • Towel Clip: Anterior traction force can be applied to clavicle by percutaneously applied towel clip, often used with one of the above methods.
  • A figure of eight sling is applied after the reduction for 4-6 weeks to allow for ligamentous healing.

If the SCJ becomes chronically unstable or if closed reduction is unsuccessful, then open reduction is indicated.

Discussion

Traumatic sternoclavicular joint dislocation is an uncommon condition whose diagnosis is often missed. The importance in determining the direction of dislocation is emphasised by the dichotomy of management. The posterior version of this dislocation has been associated with multiple complications and owing to the rarity of this injury, there is a relative lack of familiarity with the diagnosis, surgical anatomy and treatment options. [Reference]

A thorough history and examination, especially looking for evidence of compression of retrosternal structures, is paramount. Specialised sternoclavicular X-ray views should be supplemented by CT/MRI if clinical suspicion is high. Posterior dislocations necessitate prompt orthopedic referral.

References

ResearchBlogging.orgSaltzman, M., Mercer, D., Bertelsen, A., Warme, W., & Matsen, III, F. (2009). Bilateral posterior sternoclavicular dislocations Radiology Case Reports, 4 (1) DOI: 10.2484/rcr.v4i1.256

  • Jacques B. Jougon, MD, Denis J. Lepront, MD, Claire E. H. Dromer, M. Posterior Dislocation of the Sternoclavicular Joint Leading to Mediastinal Compression. [Reference]
  • Hoekzema N. Torchia M. Adkins M Cassivi SD. Posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation [Reference]
  • Mirza AH, Alam K, Ali A Posterior sternoclavicular dislocation in a rugby player as a cause of silent vascular compromise: a case report. Br J Sports Med. 2005 May;39(5):e28. [Reference]
  • Asplund C, Pollard ME. Posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation in a wrestler. Mil Med. 2004 Feb;169(2):134-6. [Reference]
  • Wirth MA, Rockwood CA Jr. Acute and Chronic Traumatic Injuries of the Sternoclavicular Joint.J Am Acad Orthop Surg. 1996 Oct;4(5):268-278. [Reference]
  • Brinker MR, Bartz RL, Reardon PR, Reardon MJ. A method for open reduction and internal fixation of the unstable posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation. J Orthop Trauma. 1997 Jul;11(5):378-81. [Reference]
  • Saltzman, M., Mercer, D., Bertelsen, A., Warme, W., & Matsen, III, F. (2009). Bilateral posterior sternoclavicular dislocations Radiology Case Reports, 4 (1) DOI: 10.2484/rcr.v4i1.256
  • O’Connor PA. Nölke L. O’Donnell A. Maha Lingham A. Retrosternal dislocation of the clavicle associated with a traumatic pneumothorax [Reference]
  • Cooper A. A treatise on dislocations and on fractures of the joints. In: Longman, Hurst, Orme, Brown, Green, eds. London, 1824:359

An old Scotch physician, for whom I had a great respect, and whom I frequently met professionally in the city, used to say, as we were entering the patient’s room together, ‘Weel, Mister Cooper, we ha’ only twa things to keep in meend, and they’ll searve us for here and herea’ter; one is always to have the fear of the Laird before our ees; that ‘ill do for herea’ter; and t’other is to keep your booels open, and that will do for here.’ – Sir Astley Cooper

Research Credit – Dr Andrew Toffoli

Gastrointestinal Gutwrencher #001

A 50 year-old man presented to the ED with sharp abdominal pain localised to his left lower quadrant.

The pain came on rapidly the day before, when he took his dog for a walk after dinner. The pain is non-radiating and worse on movement, but he has no other symptoms. Past medical history is unremarkable. His vitals were within normal limits, his abdomen was soft with no herniae or scrotal abnormalities, but he was distinctly tender in the left lower quadrant.

FBC, UEC and urinalysis were within normal limits. Following a surgical review, a CRP was ordered and the following CT abdomen was obtained:

GI gutwrencher #001

From Sand et al. (2007) – click to enlarge

Q1. What is the diagnosis?

Epiploic appendagitis

Q2. How common is this condition?

The diagnosis is rare.

This is partly because of low awareness of its existence among clinicians.

It can affect any age (mean ~45 years) and has a male preponderance. It is unclear if it is more common in the obese.

Q3. What causes this condition?

Epiploic appendages are the 50–100 fatty blobs that originate in two rows (anterior and posterior) either side of the taenia coli. They are 0.5 to 5 cm long and each is accompanied by one or two arterioles and a venule.

They may become inflamed as a result of torsion or spontaneous venous thrombosis.

Epiploic appendagitis most commonly affects the sigmoid, but also occurs in the cecum and other regions of the colon. However, patients with long sigmoids can have right-sided rather than left-sided pain.

Q4. What are the clinical features of this condition?

Abdominal pain and tenderness with the following characteristics:

  • More commonly LLQ than RLQ
  • localized, strong, non-migratory, sharp pain
  • usually starts after physical movement e.g. postprandial exercise

There is a lack of systemic features (e.g. fever, vomiting or leukocytic response), although CRP may be elevated.

Q5. What is the best way to make the diagnosis?

CT abdomen is the most reliable way of making the diagnosis, short of laparoscopic exploration. Epiploic appendages are not usually seen on CT due to fat attenuation, unless they are surrounded by intraperitoneal fluid or inflammation.

The pathognomonic CT scan finding  for epiploic appendagitis is the presence of a 2–4 cm, oval shaped, fat density lesion, surrounded by inflammatory changes.

The key features are:

  • Central focal area of hyper-attenuation with surrounding inflammation
  • ± Thickening of the parietal peritoneum wall
  • Diameter of the colonic wall is mostly regular without signs of thickening (unlike diverticulitis)

Epiploic appendagitis can be diagnosed on ultrasound but this modality has low sensitivity.

Investigations are generally targeted at excluding the serious conditions that epiploic appendagitis may mimic – especially appendicitis and diverticulitis.

Q6. How should this patient be managed?

This is somewhat controversial.

Epiploic appendagitis is generally considered a benign and self-limiting condition. Patients recover in <10 days and usually require only oral analgesia (e.g. paracetamol, NSAIDs)

However, the rate of recurrence – with pain localised to the same region – may be up to 40%. Some authorities suggest that surgical intervention may decrease this. The suggested approach is surgical exploration using laparoscopy, with simple ligation and excision of the inflamed appendage.

Reference

ResearchBlogging.org

  • Sand, M., Gelos, M., Bechara, F., Sand, D., Wiese, T., Steinstraesser, L., & Mann, B. (2007). Epiploic appendagitis – clinical characteristics of an uncommon surgical diagnosis. BMC Surgery, 7:11 DOI: 10.1186/1471-2482-7-11

Radiological Oddity #019

MS0980469.11 590x679 Radiological Oddity #019

MS0980469.37 590x373 Radiological Oddity #019

MS0980469.28 Radiological Oddity #019

ENT Equivocation #001

A 38 year old male with a background history of type 2 diabetes presents with fevers, rigors and pain on swallowing. There is no sign of impending airway compromise; however, marked trismus is noted. The following plain X-ray is obtained:

image 13 ENT Equivocation #001

Questions

Q1. What is the diagnosis?

there is gross soft tissue swelling evident anterior to the vertebral bodies. The likely diagnosis is retropharngeal abscess

Q2. What radiological investigation is indicated now?

A CT neck will allow you to determine the extent of the collection and whether it is amenable to drainage

image 21 ENT Equivocation #001

Q3. Describe the CT scan

There is an area of hypodensity in the right posterior pharynx consistent with an abscess.

Q4. The chest X-ray is normal but the ENT surgeon requests a CT chest. What do you think the purpose of this investigation is?

A CT chest is indicated to exclude unappreciated mediastinal mischief due to descending mediastinitis. This is a rare but highly lethal complication.

Q5. What is Lemierre’s syndrome?

Lemierre’s syndrome is characterised by disseminated abscesses and thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein after infection of the oropharynx. The predominant pathogen is a gram-negative anaerobic bacillus, Fusobacterium necrophorum.

Renal Riddle #001

Consider a 65 year-old male presenting with right-sided flank pain radiating to the groin.  The following CT scan was taken to confirm a presumed diagnosis of renal colic:

image 114 Renal Riddle #001

image 210 Renal Riddle #001

Questions

Q1.  Describe the CT scan

CT scan is non-contrast; however, there is:

  • right-sided retroperitoneal blood evident.
  • an abdominal aortic aneurysm.

It is important to remember that the commonest cause of the ‘classic’ presentation of renal colic amongst patients presenting to have a post-mortem is ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.

This patient needs an emergency AAA repair.

The patient was taken to theatre for emergency surgery.
The following biochemistry results were taken post-operatively:

image 37 Renal Riddle #001

Q2.  Describe the biochemistry.  What diagnosis is suggested by these biochemical findings?

Biochemistry demonstrates acute renal failure with a reduced urea-to-creatinine ratio.

The likely diagnosis is rhabomyolysis in this clinical context. Features suggestive of this diagnosis are:

  • increased urea and creatinine with a reduced urea-to-creatinine ratio
  • hyperphosphataemia, hypocalcaemia, hyperkalaemia
  • metabolic acidosis
  • increased CK (usually to greater than 40,000)
  • Although not measured here, AST, and LDH are also increased in rhabdomyolysis

Q3.  What are the other potential causes of renal failure to consider in this clinical situation?

  1. hypovolaemia from bleeding
  2. renal artery occlusion during operation
  3. use of contrast in pre-operative CT scan (not in this case)
  4. use of nephrotoxic drugs like gentamicin
  5. low cardiac output from peri-operative myocardial infarction
  6. abdominal compartment syndrome

Cardiovascular Curveball #001

This 86 year-old male presented with shortness of breath.  He developed a complication after  insertion of a left chest drain.

This CT scan demonstrates that complication:

image 22 Cardiovascular Curveball #001

Questions

Q1. What is the complication?

the chest drain is in the left ventricle.

Q2. Outline your management.

This complication was identified at the time by the presence of pulsatile bright red blood coming from the drain.
  • Clamping the drain to prevent exsanguination is a good first step!
  • Not taking the drain out is a good second step.
  • The next step is to prepare the patient for cardiac surgery to remove the drain and repair the heart.  In this patient, removing the drain and repairing the heart was achieved via a mini thoractomy.
In addition to the issues of patient care, this is a sentinel event and appropriate reporting and follow-up needs to be undertaken. The CT below demonstrates how this complication arose…not everything that looks like a left pleural effusion on a plain chest X-ray is one!
image 13 Cardiovascular Curveball #001
Q3. How could this complication have been prevented?

Put your finger in the hole!

One of the most important steps in the insertion of an intercostal catheter is to insert a finger through the hole you have just made. Do this before inserting the intercostal catheter.

Using your finger you can detect any adhesions that may lead to penetration of the lung on insertion of the intercostal catheter, as well as the presence of underlying organs such as a beating heart!

In this case, the intercostal catheter is a one from a Seldinger kit. If you are going to use one of these kits, you should do an ultrasound to make sure that there really is a pleural effusion that can be safely drained.

Trauma Tribulation #003

A 27 year-old male was involved in head on collision at high speed.  He was GCS 8 at the scene.

A CT Head was performed:

image 12 Trauma Tribulation #003

image 21 Trauma Tribulation #003

image 3 Trauma Tribulation #003

Questions

Q1. List 5 abnormalities on the CT brain.

1.  depressed, comminuted fracture of the left temporal bone

2.  fracture involving the left orbit

3.  scalp haematoma overlying the fractured temporal bone (and you can even see a big laceration)

4. pneumocephalus

5. a small left sided acute subdural haemorrhage

6. a small left frontal intraparenchymal haemorrhage

Anything else?

Pulmonary Puzzle #002

This 25 year old female presented with worsening breathless.   She has no previous medical problems.
Her Chest X-ray is shown below.
Chest X-Ray
Q1.Describe the chest X-ray findings.

This chest X-ray is normal (or so the radiologist says)

The pulse oximeter reads 90% so you decide to perform a blood gas:

image 2 Pulmonary Puzzle #002

Q2. What does the blood gas show?

Firstly, the pulse oximeter is accurate!  Secondly, the patient is sick.  Thirdly, the patient has a marked respiratory alkalosis (i.e. she is breathing hard).  Fourthly, the A-a gradient is markedly widened.

After careful consideration of the diagnostic possibilities you decide to perform a CTPA:

image 3 Pulmonary Puzzle #002

Q3. What does the CTPA demonstrate?

Surprise, surprise… a pulmonary embolism (if someone shows you a CTPA and asks you what it shows this is usually the correct answer).  Of particular note, the pulmonary trunk is larger than the aorta.   This is often indicates the presence of elevated right ventricular systolic pressure.

Before anticoagulating the patient you review the blood tests:

image 7 Pulmonary Puzzle #002

image 8 Pulmonary Puzzle #002

Q4. Describe the significant abnormalities.  What is the diagnosis?

Thrombocytopenia is significant (given the need to anti-coagulate).  The presence of an elevated APPT that corrects with high phospholipid reagent is seen in antiphospholipid syndrome and thrombocytopenia is also a feature of this condition.

Q5. How would you treat this patient? (by the way the answer is not to ask someone else from another speciality what to do)

The conundrum here is what to do about a life threatening pulmonary embolism is a patient with no platelets.  One option is to treat the low platelets so that you can anticoagulate the patient safely.  Thrombocytopenia often gets better with steroids in this condition.

While waiting for the steroids to work you need to make sure that patient doesn’t drop dead from a further pulmonary embolism so you order an ultrasound of the legs to assess the situation further.

image 52 Pulmonary Puzzle #002

Q5. What does the ultrasound demonstrate?

This ultrasound scan shows a normal vein which disappears with compression.  The other leg looks like this because there is a DVT.

image 61 Pulmonary Puzzle #002

Q6. What is this?

image 91 Pulmonary Puzzle #002

An IVC filter to stop the DVT from the leg travelling to the pulmonary artery while waiting for the steroids to kick in

This is the admission ECG

image 121 Pulmonary Puzzle #002

Q7. Describe the ECG

This ECG demonstrates right ventricular strain with T wave inversion in the anterior leads.  The echo report confirms the presence of right ventricular strain:

image 13 Pulmonary Puzzle #002

Neurological Mind-boggler #001

Consider a 45 year-old HIV positive male with right hemiparesis and fluctuating conscious state.
His CT head is shown below.

CT #1

CT #2

Questions

Q1.Describe the CT Head findings.

This scan shows a left frontoparietal hypodense lesion with surrounding oedema and mass effect which shows enhancement with contrast.

Q2. Outline the differential diagnosis.

In HIV CNS lesions can be divided into those which exhibit mass effect and those that do not.

CNS lesions with mass effect include:

  1. toxoplasma encephalitis
  2. primary CNS lymphoma
  3. tuberculoma (more common in the developing world)
  4. other lesions are less common but include brain abscesses secondary to Staph, Strep, Salmonella, Aspergillus, Nocardia, Listeria & cryptococcus

NB: toxoplasmosis and primary CNS lymphoma are the most common

CNS lesions without mass effect are commonly due to progressive multifocal encephalopathy or HIV-associated encephalitis.

Quiz Radiology 021

A head CT scan of an 83 year old woman has been performed, who has presented with a 3 day history of increasing confusion and unsteady gait following a fall. Her GCS is 12 (M5, V3, E4).

Question

a. Describe the CT scan. (50%)
b. What factors are important in determining this patient’s treatment? (50%)

20031 2 CT 590x582 Quiz Radiology 021

Answer

FACEM VAQ Exam 2003.1 – Question 2

  • The overall pass rate for this question was 71 / 83 (85.5%).
  • Examiners felt that this was an easy question. They noted that a comprehensive description of the features of the subdural was expected given this was half of the question and hence marks.
  • In the second part it was expected input would be required from multiple sources including patient, family, physician and neurosurgeon.
  • Failures were due to not addressing these issues or by making an incorrect diagnosis.

Quiz Radiology 020

An 45 year old man presents to your emergency department with vertigo and ataxia.

Question

a. Describe the CT. (30%)
b. What further investigations are indicated in this case? (70%)

20032 5 CT O 590x691 Quiz Radiology 020

Answer

FACEM VAQ Exam 2003.2 – Question 5

  • The overall pass rate for this question was 48 / 82 (58.5%).
  • A CT scan is performed. A CT scan showing bilateral areas of decreased attenuation in the cerebellum is shown.
  • This proved to be a testing question that highlighted many candidates’ inability to interpret CT scans.
  • It was considered to be an excellent test of consultant level knowledge.
  • To pass candidates needed to accurately report the areas of decreased attenuation and relate this to possible causes including cardiac, embolic, vascular and malignancy. Appreciating possible causes would then lead to common sense investigations as would occur “on the floor” in the ED.
  • Failures resulted from neglecting many of these issues or due to misreading the CT as a haemorrhage.

Quiz Radiology 016

A 72 year old man undergoes this investigation in your emergency department after his presentation with a first ever generalised seizure. He has normal vital signs and no focal neurological signs on examination.

A CT head scan with a ring enhancing left sided lesion is shown.

Question

a. Describe and interpret the CT. (50%)
b. Outline your further investigation. (50%)

20041 CT  Quiz Radiology 016

Answer

FACEM VAQ Exam 2004.1 – Question 2

  • The overall pass rate for this question was 53 / 69 (76.8%).
  • Examiners expected that candidates would accurately size and locate the lesion and in particular emphasise that it was ring enhancing.
  • It was mandatory that the differentials offered include
    metatasis which is by far the most likely cause in this age group.
  • Expected investigation needed to include not just that of the lesion but of the patient as a whole and include likely causes and complications of metastatic malignancy in this age group.
  • Failures stemmed largely from an inability to appreciate the likely diagnosis and then the investigations needed that would follow from this.

Quiz Trauma 010

A 19 year old football player presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain following a tackle during a match 5 days previously. A CT scan has been performed.

Question

a. Describe and interpret the CT scan. (30%)
b. Outline your management of this patient. (70%)

CT spleen rupture

Answer

FACEM VAQ Exam 2004.2 – Question 7

  • Overall pass rate for this question was 52 / 64 (81.3%).
  • The CT shows evidence of splenic trauma.
  • Examiners expected a comprehensive description of the splenic injury. Given that the majority of the marks were allocated to the management it was expected that more than just basic resuscitation be described.
  • In particular options were expected given that patient factors (e.g. shock, informed
    preference) may be dominant in formulating a management plan.
  • Failures were due to making an incorrect diagnosis or omission of several major management issues.

Quiz Radiology 013

A 48 year old man presents to your emergency department via ambulance following a syncopal episode. He is confused with a GCS of 12 (M – 5, V – 4, E – 3). His observations, otherwise, are within normal limits. He has had a CT scan of his head performed.

Question

a. Describe and interpret his CT scan. (50%)
b. List what features you would seek on history in this man. (50%)

20052 5 CT N 590x590 Quiz Radiology 013

Answer

FACEM VAQ Exam 2005.1 – Question 5

  • The overall pass rate for this question was 40 / 44 (90.9%).
  • The CT image shows an apparently extra-axial, unilateral mass of mixed attenuation.
  • The expectation was that candidates would comment on the mixed density extra–axial collection which had the typical appearances of an extradural haematoma.
  • History would have been more difficult to obtain in this patient as he has a GCS of 12 but needed to be relevant to the stated scenario and so include consideration of issues such as trauma, bleeding diathesis, epilepsy and alcohol abuse as well as the usual key history questions.

Quiz Paediatrics 007

A 4 year old boy arrives at your urban district emergency department one hour after falling from a playground slide. He opens his eyes to speech, uses inappropriate words and obeys commands (GCS 12).

The nearest neurosurgical service is twenty minutes away by road ambulance.

An image from his head CT scan is shown.

Question

a. Describe and interpret his CT scan. (30%)
b. List the pros and cons of endotracheal intubation for this transfer (70%)

20071 8 CT O Quiz Paediatrics 007

Answer

FACEM VAQ Exam 2007.1 – Question 8

  • Overall pass rate for this question was 40/55 (72.7%).
  • Scan showed a large L extradural haematoma with mass effect.
  • The examiners felt that this was an excellent question backed by a high quality image.
  • The CT scan description was generally well done.
  • Major reason for poor scores on this question was failure to provide adequate reasons pro and con intubation in this case.
  • Writing was particularly problematic to the examiners in interpreting the answers.

Radiology Oddity #016

It is another busy night in ED. The ‘Bat-Phone’ rings, gently pricking the ear to attention in anticipation of the next code…

We are bringing in a 60 year old lady with profuse diaphoresis, hypotensive with a systolic of 70 and altered conscious state…

Initial examination confirms an unwell lady, drained of colour, drenched in sweat taking short shallow breaths. Following application of oxygen, comprehensive non-invasive monitoring, IV access and analgesia you decide to perform a rapid bedside abdominal USS (even though you are by no means an expert in wielding the mighty sono sword)…but it is late, the really clever sonoboys are all tucked up in bed…so it’s all up to you – SonoMan®

Through the vagaries of shadows that are beholden to the sonographic snowland you think you see a cave-like compressible opening around 5-6cm in diameter…but lets face it – the howling blizzard you just demonstrated on the sono-machine-thing hasn’t really helped you refine your differential diagnosis

So you send your patient to the ‘Donut of Death’ for a dose of real radiation

Now what Doc?

Abdominal CT scan

Abdominal CT scan

Acalculous Cholecystitis

Acalculous Cholecystitis

Acalculous Cholecystitis

Acalculous Cholecystitis